Physical geography; The Planet Earth - Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers

1 - The Earth is not quite spherical, because:

a. the polar radius is a little larger than the equatorial radius

b. the equatorial radius is a little larger than the polar radius

c. there are mountains in the northern hemisphere that make the surface uneven

d. there are depressions on the surface making it look more like a golfball

2 - The ocean makes up about _____ percent of the Earth's surface. a. 30

b. 45

c. 60

d. 71

e. 91

3 - The cryosphere includes _____. 

a. all forms of water on the Earth's surface

b. the highest layers of the atmosphere

c. all forms of frozen water

d. the deepest regions of the ocean

e. all of these

4 - The biosphere includes all of the following except: 

a. plants

b. animals

c. atmosphere

d. people

e. ecosystems

5 - What feature covers the largest portion of the Earth's surface? 

a. Antarctica

b. Asia

c. Africa

d. North America

e. Pacific Ocean

6 - The large, flat portion of the ocean basin at great depth is called the: 

a. ocean floor

b. ocean basement

c. abyssal plain

d. lower plains

e. Davey Jones' locker

7 - The very gently sloping, relatively shallow, submerged plain at the edge of the continent is the: 

a. continental slope

b. continental shelf

c. continental rise

d. shallow sea

8 - The deepest part of the ocean floor occurs along the: 

a. abyssal plain

b. trenches

c. middle of the Pacific

d. middle of the Indian Ocean

9 - Mid-oceanic ridges are: 

a. active volcanic features

b. found in most oceans basins

c. high, uplifted features

d. geologically active

e. all of the above

10 - Which is the largest landmass on Earth? 

a. Africa

b. Eurasia

c. North America

d. South America

e. Antarctica

11 - The hydrosphere includes the: 

a. ocean

b. atmospheric water

c. surface water

d. ground water

e. all of these

12 - Because of the shape of the Earth, you would weigh: 

a. more at the equator than at the poles because you are closer to the center of the Earth

b. more at the poles than at the equator because you are closer to the center of the Earth

c. more on a mountain top than at sea level because gravity increases with elevation

d. exactly the same at the equator as at the poles since the Earth is perfectly round

13 - This portion of the ocean consists of large and long, submarine volcanic mountain features. a. abyssal plain

b. seamounts

c. midoceanic ridges

d. Atlantis

ANSWERS:

1 - b. the equatorial radius is a little larger than the polar radius.

2 - d. 71.

3 - c. all forms of frozen water.

4 - c. atmosphere.

5 - e. Pacific Ocean.

6 - c. abyssal plain.

7 - b. continental shelf.

8 - b. trenches.

9 - e. all of the above.

10 - b. Eurasia.

11 - e. all of these.

12 - a. more at the equator than at the poles because you are closer to the center of the Earth.

13 - c. midoceanic ridges.

Review Questions and Answers; Sedimentary Rocks

1. What are the minimum and maximum sizes of sand grains?

Answer: Sand grains range in size from 1/16 mm to 2 mm.

2. The material that makes up a rock such as conglomerate cannot be deposited by a slow-flowing river. Why? 

Answer: Conglomerate cannot be deposited by a slow-flowing river because clasts larger than 2 mm are not transported by slow-moving water.

3. Describe the two main processes of lithification. 

Answer: Sediments are buried beneath other sediments where, because of the increased pressure, they become compacted and water is forced out from between the grains. With additional burial they are warmed to the point where cementing minerals can form between the grains (less than 200˚C).

4. What is the difference between a lithic arenite and a lithic wacke? 

Answer: Lithic arenite has less than 15% silt- and clay-sized particles, while a lithic wacke has more than 15%. Both have more than 10% rock fragments and more rock fragments than feldspar.

5. How does a feldspathic arenite differ from a quartz arenite? 

Answer: Feldspathic arenite has more than 10% feldspar and more feldspar than rock fragments. Quartz arenite has less than 10% feldspar and less than 10% rock fragments. Both have less than 15% silt and clay.

6. What can we say about the source area lithology, and the weathering and transportation history of a sandstone that is primarily composed of rounded quartz grains? 

Answer: Source area lithology: rock that contains quartz (such as granite or sandstone). Strong weathering is required to remove feldspar, and long fluvial transportation to round the grains.

7. What is the original source of the carbon that is present within carbonate deposits such as limestone? 

Answer: The carbon within carbonate deposits such as limestone ultimately comes from the atmosphere.

8. What long-term environmental change on Earth led to the deposition of banded iron formations? 

Answer: Most of Earth’s banded iron formations formed during the initial oxygenation of the atmosphere between 2.4 and 1.8 Ga because iron that had been soluble in the anoxic oceans became insoluble in the oxidized oceans.

9. Name two important terrestrial depositional environments and two important marine ones. 

Answer: Terrestrial depositional environments: rivers, lakes, deltas, deserts, glaciers. Marine depositional environments: continental shelves, continental slopes, deep ocean.

10. What is the origin of a foreland basin, and how does it differ from a forearc basin? 

Answer: A foreland basin forms in the vicinity of a large range of mountains where the weight of the mountains depresses the crust on either side. A forearc basin lies between a subduction zone and the related volcanic arc.

11. Explain the origins of (a) bedding, (b) cross-bedding, (c) graded bedding, and (d) mud cracks. 

Answer: (a) Bedding forms where there is an interruption or change in the depositional process, or a change in the composition of the material being deposited. (b) Cross-bedding forms in fluvial or aeolian environments where sand-sized sediments are being moved and ripples or dunes are present. (c) Graded bedding forms when transport energy decreases, depositing finer and finer particles. (d) Mud cracks form where fine-grained sediments (silt or clay) are allowed to dry.

12. Under what conditions will reverse-graded bedding form? 

Answer: Reverse-graded bedding forms during gravity flows, such as debris flows.

13. What are the criteria for the application of a formation name to a series of sedimentary rocks?

Answer: A formation is a series of beds that is distinct from other beds above and below it, and is thick enough to be shown on the geological maps that are widely used within the area in question.

14. Explain why some of the Nanaimo Group formations have been divided into members, while others have not.

Answer: The Nanaimo Group was actively mined for coal for many decades. During that time the names were given to members and individual beds that were important to the coal miners.

Review Questions and Answers; Metamorphism and Metamorphic Rocks

1. What are the two main agents of metamorphism, and what are their respective roles in producing metamorphic rocks?

Answer: Heat and pressure are the main agents of metamorphism. Heat leads to mineralogical changes in the rock. Pressure also influences those mineralogical changes, while directed pressure (greater pressure in one direction) leads to foliation.

2. What types of metamorphic rocks will form if a mudrock experiences very low, low, medium, and high-grade metamorphism? 

Answer: Very low grade: slate; low grade: phyllite; medium grade: schist; high grade: gneiss.

3. Why doesn’t granite change very much at lower metamorphic grades? 

Answer: Granite remains largely unchanged at lower metamorphic grades because its minerals are still stable at those lower temperatures.

4. Describe the main process of foliation development in a metamorphic rock such as schist. 

Answer: Foliation develops in schist when new platy minerals grow with their longest dimension at a right angle to the direction of greatest pressure.

5. What process contributes to metamorphism of oceanic crust at a spreading ridge? 

Answer: At a spreading ridge the heat from volcanism leads to the development of a groundwater convection system in the rock of the oceanic crust. Heated water rises in the hot regions and is expelled into the ocean, while cold ocean water is drawn into the crust to replace it. The heated water leads to the conversion of olivine and pyroxene into chlorite and serpentine.

6. How do variations in the geothermal gradient affect the depth at which different metamorphic rocks form?

Answer: The geothermal gradient varies as a function of tectonic setting, being greatest in volcanic regions and lowest along subduction zones. As a result the depth at which specific metamorphic grades is achieved will vary: the depth will be greater when the gradient is lower.

7. Blueschist metamorphism takes place within subduction zones. What are the particular temperature and pressure characteristics of this geological setting? 

Answer: The geothermal gradient is low within subduction zones because the cold subducting oceanic crust takes a long time to heat up. Pressure increases with depth at the normal rate, but temperature does not.

8. Rearrange the following minerals in order of increasing metamorphic grade: biotite, garnet, sillimanite, chlorite. 

Answer: Order of increasing metamorphic grade: chlorite, biotite, garnet, sillimanite.

9. What is the role of magmatic fluids in the metamorphism that takes place adjacent to a pluton? 

Answer: Water from any source facilitates metamorphism. Magmatic fluids typically contain dissolved ions at higher concentrations than in regular groundwater (especially copper, zinc, silver, gold, lithium, beryllium, boron and fluorine), leading to the formation of a unique set of minerals.

10. How does metasomatism differ from regional metamorphism? 

Answer: Metasomatism involves fluids from magmatic or groundwater sources that play an important role in transporting ions into the system, and leading to the formation of new minerals. Regional metamorphism takes place over a larger area, depends more on plate tectonic conditions, and does not involve flushing the system with large amounts of fluid.

11. How does the presence of a hot pluton contribute to metasomatism? 

Answer: A hot pluton heats the surrounding water, causing groundwater to convect. This can result a great deal of water, in some cases with elevated levels of specific ions, passing through the rock. Water from magma within the pluton also contributes to metasomatism.

12. What determines whether metasomatism will produce skarn? 

Answer: Limestone must be present to produce skarn.

13. For each of the following metamorphic rocks, indicate the likely parent rock and the grade and/or type of metamorphism: chlorite schist, slate, mica-garnet schist, amphibolite, marble.

Answer: Parent rocks and metamorphic grades and types:

Practice Questions and Answers: Metamorphic Rocks

1. Base your answer to the following question on the information below.

A student on a field trip in New York State collected a sample of metamorphic bedrock containing bands of coarse-grained crystals of plagioclase feldspar, pyroxene, quartz, and mica.

Identify the metamorphic rock found by the student.

2. Which rock is only formed by regional metamorphism?

A) slate 

B) hornfels 

C) dunite 

D) marble

3. Base your answer to the following question on the geologic cross section below. Location A is within the metamorphic rock.

The metamorphic rock at location A is most likely

A) marble 

B) quartzite 

C) phyllite 

D) slate

4. Wavy bands of light and dark minerals visible in gneiss bedrock probably formed from the

A) cementing together of individual miner grains 

B) cooling and crystallization of magma 

C) evaporation of an ancient ocean 

D) heat and pressure during metamorphism

5. Base your answer to the following question on The rock shown below has a foliated texture and contains the minerals amphibole, quartz, and feldspar arranged in coarse-grained bands.

Which rock is shown?

A) slate 

B) dunite 

C) gneiss 

D) quartzite

6. Base your answer to the following question on the graph below, which shows the crustal temperature and pressure conditions under which three different minerals with the same chemical composition (Al2SiO5) crystallize.

Under which crustal temperature and pressure conditions will andalusite form?

A) 300°C and 6000 atmospheres 

B) 500°C and 2000 atmospheres 

C) 600°C and 4000 atmospheres 

D) 700°C and 8000 atmospheres

7. Which physical characteristic best describes the rock phyllite?

A) glassy texture with gas pockets 

B) clastic texture with angular fragments 

C) bioclastic texture with cemented shell fragments 

D) foliated texture with microscopic mica crystals

8. During the Permian Period, sedimentary bedrock in the Appalachian Region was subjected to high temperature and pressure. Calcite deposits that had existed in this environment would most likely have formed

A) schist 

B) gabbro 

C) marble 

D) gneiss

9. Which nonfoliated rock forms only in a zone of contact metamorphism?

A) conglomerate 

B) hornfels 

C) pegmatite 

D) quartzite

10. Which rock is foliated, shows mineral alignment but not banding, and contains medium-sized grains of quartz and pyroxene?

A) phyllite 

B) schist 

C) gneiss 

D) quartzite

11. The diagram below shows four rock samples.

Which sample best shows the physical properties normally associated with regional metamorphism?

A) A 

B) B 

C) C 

D) D

12. Which sequence of change in rock type occurs as shale is subjected to increasing heat and pressure?

A) shale → schist → phyllite → slate → gneiss 

B) shale → slate → phyllite → schist → gneiss 

C) shale → gneiss → phyllite → slate → schist 

D) shale → gneiss → phyllite → schist → slate

13. How do the metamorphic rocks schist and quartzite differ?

A) Quartzite contains the mineral quartz and schist does not. 

B) Quartzite forms from regional metamorphism and schist does not. 

C) Schist is organically formed and quartzite is not. 

D) Schist is foliated and quartzite is not.

14. Base your answer to the following question on the cross section below which shows the surface and subsurface rock formations near New York City.

A) Palisades sill 

B) Fordham gneiss 

C) Inwood marble 

D) Manhattan schist

15. The diagram below represents a rock with a distorted layer structure.

The distorted structure of this rock is most likely the result of

A) a long period of weathering 

B) glacial activity 

C) wind erosion 

D) extreme pressure

Answer Key

1. gneiss 

2. A 

3. B 

4. D 

5. C 

6. B 

7. D 

8. C 

9. B 

10. B 

11. A 

12. B 

13. D 

14. C 

15. D

Geology - Metamorphic Rocks – Practice Questions and Answers

1. Metamorphism is a __________________ that involves no melt phase.

2. The protolith of a metamorphic rock is the 

(a) sibling 

(b) brother 

(c) parent 

(d) daughter 

(e) none of the above 

3. Fabric refers to the way ____________ in a rock are arranged.

4. Foliation is defined by the _______________arrangement of minerals.

5. Typical platy minerals (sheet silicates) defining a foliation include (select all that apply) 

(a) chlorite 

(b) muscovite 

(c) biotite 

(d) hornblende 

(e) pyroxene

6. Directed pressure during metamorphism produces a _________________.

7. If elements do not enter or leave a rock during recrystallization, then the rock system is described as ___________ or __________________.

8. Marble is a metamorphic rock composed of coarse-grained 

(a) dolomite 

(b) quartz 

(c) calcite 

(d) epidote 

(e) garnet

9. Quartzite is a metamorphic rock composed of a dense network of interlocking 

(a) dolomite 

(b) quartz 

(c) calcite 

(d) epidote 

(e) garnet

10. Basalts when metamorphosed at temperatures of ~500o C or higher are transformed into __________________________.

11. Slates are characterized by a tendency to break into even-parallel sheets due to the parallel alignment of the flat crystal faces of 

(a) garnet and kyanite 

(b) sillimanite and biotite 

(c) chlorite and muscovite 

(d) quartz and epidote 

(e) none of the above

12. The foliation in a slate is called slaty 

(a) schistosity 

(b) gneissosity 

(c) cleavage 

(d) foliage 

(e) none of the above

13. Assuming a mudstone protolith, the transformation to a slate occurs at ~________ o C. 

14. Phyllites are _________________ grained than slates, and when held up to the sunlight exhibit a marked ____________, as rays of light reflect off the aligned crystals of ______________ and _________________. 

15. Assuming a mudstone protolith, the transformation to schist occurs at temperatures between about _______ and ______ o C. The resulting foliation is called ___________________. 

16. Schist derived from a mudstone at temperatures between about 500 oC and 650 oC will consist of quartz, feldspar, muscovite, biotite, garnet, and _____________. Such a rock would be ___________________ grained than a phyllite. 

17. The coarsest grained metamorphic rock is a (a) phyllite (b) slate (c) schist (d) gneiss (e) none of the above 

18. A foliation in gneiss would be called ___________________. It forms as ions migrate over microscopic distances at temperatures above ______ to ______ ºC. 

19. Metamorphic grade refers to the broad pressure conditions of metamorphism. True or false

20. In general, metamorphic grade is dependent upon the 

(a) geobarometer 

(b) isotherm 

(c) geotherm 

(d) lithobar 

(e) none of the above 

21. Given a specific geotherm, low metamorphic grade rocks occur in the ___________________ part of the crust while higher grade rocks will occur at _________ levels. 

22. Given a mudstone protolith, and a geothermal gradient typical of arc-continent collisions, at temperatures over 700 o C, the stable metamorphic mineral assemblage will consist of quartz, feldspar, and ______________. 

23. Isotherms are curves or surfaces of equal 

(a) composition 

(b) volume 

(c) pressure 

(d) temperature 

(e) none of the above 

24. Isotherms bend downward within 

(a) volcanic arcs 

(b) continental interiors 

(c) divergent margins 

(d) subduction zone settings 

(e) none of the above 

25. In volcanic arc settings, isotherms bend downward due to the introduction of hot magma. True or false 

26. An envelope of recrystallized rock surrounding a pluton is called a 

(a) rim of hard rock 

(b) envelope of hard rock 

(c) contact metamorphic aureole 

(d) contact metamorphic rim 

(e) none of the above 

27. Non-foliated rocks found in contact metamorphic aureoles are called 

(a) granofels 

(b) hornfels 

(c) lithofels 

(d) petrofels 

(e) none of the above 

28. Phase diagrams depict the PT conditions under which various minerals are stable. True or false

29. Is andalusite a low or high pressure phase relative to kyanite? 

30. Is sillimanite a low or high temperature phase relative to andalusite? 

31. Which of the following metamorphic facies represent rocks that were metamorphosed under the lowest PT conditions recognized by geologists? 

(a) eclogite 

(b) amphibolite 

(c) greenschist 

(d) granulite 

(e) zeolite 

32. Which of the following metamorphic facies represent rocks that were metamorphosed under the highest pressure conditions recognized by geologists? 

(f) eclogite 

(g) amphibolite 

(h) greenschist 

(i) granulite 

(j) zeolite 

33. The hornfels facies forms during ____________________ metamorphism. 34. In subduction zone settings the geotherm is _________. 

35. The geotherm in collisional zones and active regions of continents is about __________. 

36. The geotherm in island arcs is about _________. 

37. Why do isotherms bow upward in island arcs and mid-ocean ridges? 

38. Why do isotherms bend downward in subduction zone settings? 

39. How would describe the distribution of metamorphic facies within a zone of collision between an island arc and a passive continental margin? 

40. What would happen to a mudstone if it were metamorphosed at temperatures in excess of 700o C under wet conditions?

41. Using the illustration shown below, please answer the following questions. 

(a) What minerals would be stable at temperatures around 400o C, 600o C and 710o C? 

(b) What is the relationship between textural type of metamorphic rock and metamorphic grade? 

(c) What is the relationship between metamorphic grade and facies development? 

(d) What is the average temperature for the onset of metamorphism? 

(e) If a mudstone undergoes metamorphism under wet conditions at temperatures above ~700o C, then what will happen?

42. In the illustration shown below, the continental geotherm is broadly representative of collisional and other active regions of the crust. Please answer the following questions. 

(a) What is the metamorphic facies series for a geotherm typical of subduction zone settings? 

(b) What is the metamorphic facies series for a geotherm typical of continental regions? 

(c) What is the metamorphic facies associated with geotherms around cooling magma?

43. In the following illustration what do the fields labeled A, B, and C represent?

ANSWERS:

1. solid-state recrystallization 

2. (c) parent 

3. minerals 

4. plane or planar

 

5. (a) chlorite, (b) muscovite, (c) biotite 

6. foliation 

7. closed, isochemical

8. (c) calcite

9. (b) quartz 

10. amphibolite

 

11. (c) chlorite and muscovite 

12. (c) cleavage

13. 300 

14. coarser, sheen, chlorite, muscovite 

15. 400, 500, schisosity 

16. staurolite, coarser 

17. (d) gneiss 

18. gneissosity, 600, 650 

19. False, metamorphic grade refers to the relative temperature conditions under which rocks were metamorphosed 

20. (c) geotherm - note that this is sometimes referred to as the geothermal gradient 

21. upper, deeper 22. sillimanite 

23. (d) temperature 

24. (d) subduction zone settings 

25. False 

26. (c) contact metamorphic aureole 

27. (b) hornfels 

28. True 

29. low pressure 30. high temperature 

31. (e) zeolite facies 

32. (a) eclogite 

33. contact 

34. 10o C/km 

35. 25o - 35o C/km 

36. 50o C/km 

37. Isotherms bow upward in island arcs and mid-ocean ridges because hot magma is introduced in these regions. 

38. Isotherms bend downward in subduction zone settings because the cold subducting lithospheric plate descends at a rate faster than it can equilibrate (warm up) to the temperatures of the over ridging plate.

39. Zeolite and prehnite-pumpellyite facies would occur along the flanks. Moving progressively toward the interior of the zone of collision, you would encounter greenschist, amphibolite, and granulite facies. 

40. The mudstone probably would melt. 

41. 

(a) @ 400o C chlorite, muscovite, and biotite would be stable @ 600o C quartz, feldspar, muscovite, biotite, garnet, and staurolite would be stable @ 710o C quartz, feldspar, biotite, sillimanite, and possibly muscovite would be stable 

(b) Low grade rocks are going to be composed largely of slates, phyllites, and schists while intermediate grade rocks are going to be schists and gneisses. High grade rocks are going to consist primarily of gneisses. 

(c) Greenschist facies rocks will be composed primarily of slates, phyllites, and schists. Amphibolite facies rocks will be mostly schists and gneisses, while high grade metamorphic rocks will be dominated by gneisses. 

(d) ~300o C 

(e) It will melt 

42. 

(a) Zeolite, blueschist, ecologite facies 

(b) Zeolite, prehnite-pumpellyite, greenschist, amphibolite, and granulite facies 

(c) Contact 

43. A = kyanite. B = sillimanite. C = andalusite.

World War II (1939–1945) - Sample Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers

1. The Atlantic Charter of 1941 was important to colonial people because 

A. Great Britain promised to end its colonial rule in Asia and Africa. 

B. they believed it gave them the right to govern themselves. 

C. all European countries promised economic aid to their former colonies. 

D. the United States pledged to support the colonial struggle for freedom. 

E. it allowed all colonial governments to become part of the United Nations. 

2. The turning point of the war in North Africa was the British victory over German forces at 

A. the Coral Sea. 

B. Midway. 

C. Stalingrad. 

D. El Alamein. 

E. Leningrad. 

3. One of the main reasons for Hitler’s invasion of Russia was 

A. to prevent the Japanese from taking territory from Russia in Asia. 

B. to gain control of the wheat fields in the Ukraine, which could provide additional food for the German war effort. 

C. because he feared a Russian invasion of Germany. 

D. to establish military bases in Russia. E. to liberate the Russian people from Bolshevism.

4. Sitzkrieg refers to 

A. a phony war from October 1939 to March 1940. 

B. the defeat of Poland. 

C. a German counter-attack at Battle of the Bulge. 

D. a German invasion of Russia. 

E. the Battle of Britain.

5. Prior to June 1944, what country carried the bulk of the land war against Germany? 

A. Britain 

B. The United States 

C. The Soviet Union 

D. France 

E. The French Resistance Movement 

6. All of the following were a result of the Teheran Conference EXCEPT 

A. a second front through France. B. postwar occupation of Germany. 

C. the demilitarization of Germany. 

D. the first meeting of the Big Three. 

E. a demand for unconditional surrender of the Axis powers. 

7. Which is considered the turning point of the war on the Eastern Front? 

A. The Battle of Leningrad 

B. The Battle of Stalingrad 

C. Brest-Litovsk 

D. The Battle of El Alamein 

E. The bombing of Dresden

8. Why did the wartime cooperation between the Soviet Union and the Western powers break down at Potsdam? 

A. The Western powers refused to acknowledge the division of Germany. 

B. Stalin demanded more territory from Japan. 

C. Stalin refused to carry out free elections in Eastern Europe. 

D. Churchill insisted that Germany be blamed solely for the war. 

E. The Soviet Union refused to join the United Nations.

9. At the Yalta Conference, the Soviet Union agreed to 

A. the creation of the United Nations. 

B. free elections in Eastern Europe. 

C. share atomic secrets with other nations. 

D. the joint invasion of Japan. 

E. no separate peace treaties with the Axis powers.

10. The Nuremberg Trials of 1945/1946 established the principle of 

A. collective guilt. 

B. war crimes being justified under extreme circumstances. 

C. national leaders being held personally responsible for crimes against humanity. 

D. individuals who followed the orders of their superiors not being held accountable. E. genocide.

Multiple-Choice Questions: Answers and Explanations

1. B. The Atlantic Charter was signed on August 14, 1941, and outlined the principles of freedom and economic development to ensure peace. Churchill was reluctant to sign the Atlantic Charter because it contained the provision that people could choose their own government. Churchill believed that Roosevelt was trying to do away with the British Empire. At the signing, Roosevelt became a hero to oppressed people all over the world for his opposition to the imperialist policies of the British, French, and Dutch. Colonial people believed that the Atlantic Charter gave them the right to self-government. It was reported that within a few days of the signing of the Atlantic Charter, Churchill received reports that the Burmese people would call for independence from Britain after the war. This same spirit was expressed by other colonial people living in Egypt and other parts of Africa. The Atlantic Charter did not provide for economic aid to former colonial countries nor would the United States promise to support the struggle for freedom or allow former colonial governments to become part of the United Nations. 

2. D. The British army defeated the German army at El Alamein, which is 70 miles from Alexandria, Egypt. This battle protected Britain’s Suez Canal, the lifeline of the British Empire. The Coral Sea and Midway were naval battles fought by the United States Navy against Japan. Stalingrad and Leningrad were the sites of battles on the Russian front. 

3. B. Hitler embarked on Operation Barbarossa because he realized that the potential wealth of the raw materials in the Ural Mountains, the vast forests of Siberia, and the tremendous wheat fields in the Ukraine would enable Germany to dominate Europe and carry out the war against England and other countries. Hitler did not fear Japanese expansion in Asia nor did he fear a Russian invasion. Russia was surprised by the German invasion; Stalin had refused to believe that Hitler would violate the non-aggression pact. Hitler wanted to destroy Stalin but never intended to liberate the Russian people from the yoke of communism. 

4. A. Sitzkrieg refers to the phony war from October 1939 to March 1940 where there was little fighting after the German invasion of Poland. The defeat of Poland in four weeks demonstrated the effectiveness of Blitzkrieg (Lightning War). In June 1941, the Germans invaded Russia with over 3 million men and expected that their invasion would be over by the winter. German forces were repelled at the Battle of the Bulge. The Battle of Britain resulted in the failure of German air power to defeat the British. 

5. C. The Soviet Union carried the bulk of the land war against Germany. France was knocked out of the war in 1940 and Britain was never a land power. The Soviet Union bore the brunt of the war effort until the establishment of the second front in June 1944. The United States did not bear the brunt until D-Day. The French Resistance Movement had very little impact on the war effort against Germany. 

6. E. The Teheran Conference did not demand the unconditional surrender of the Axis powers. Churchill and Roosevelt had met in January 1943 at Casablanca and agreed upon a policy of unconditional surrender. The Teheran Conference addressed the issue of the second front, demilitarization of Germany, and postwar occupation of Germany. It was also the first time that Stalin, Churchill, and Roosevelt met. 

7. B. The Battle of Stalingrad marked the turning point of the war on the Eastern Front. The Battle of Stalingrad stopped the German advances in the south and turned the tide of the battle. Leningrad was besieged for 900 days. It is a heroic tale but did not represent a turning point on the Eastern Front. Brest-Litovsk was the site of the peace negotiations between Germany and the Bolsheviks that ended Russia’s participation in World War I. The Battle of El Alamein marked the turning point in North Africa. The bombing of Dresden in Germany dealt with Allied efforts in 1945 to defeat Germany. It was not an area of conflict on the Eastern Front. 

8. C. Stalin’s refusal to carry out free elections in Eastern Europe led to a breakdown of wartime cooperation between the Soviet Union and the Western powers at Potsdam. President Truman, who had succeeded Franklin D. Roosevelt, insisted that Stalin carry out his pledge of free elections that he had agreed to at the Yalta Conference. Stalin’s refusal laid the groundwork for the beginning of the Cold War. The Allied powers had agreed to the postwar occupation of Germany. Stalin did not demand more territory from Japan nor did he refuse to join the United Nations. None of the Allied nations wanted to blame Germany solely for the war. They wanted to avoid the mistakes of the Versailles Treaty.

9. B. At Yalta, the Soviet Union agreed to free elections in Eastern Europe. Stalin was determined to create a buffer zone against Germany and wanted to decide the fate of Eastern Europe himself. Churchill and Roosevelt agreed to the compromise because they could not really stop Stalin and were unwilling to go to war over Eastern Europe. The Allied nations had pledged to create a United Nations in 1941. The Soviet Union agreed to declare war on Japan but there was no discussion of a joint invasion. The Allied nations did not share atomic secrets with each other. Stalin was never informed that the United States was developing the atomic bomb. The Casablanca Conference declared that there would be no separate treaties with the Axis powers. 

10. C. The Nuremberg Trials established the principle that Axis leaders should be tried for crimes against humanity. At the end of World War I, nothing was done to punish those leaders who were responsible for the war. At the Nuremberg Trials, Nazi war criminals were put on trial and 142 were found guilty. These trials were held for leading industrialists, military commanders, and others involved in the Final Solution. The Nuremberg Trials did not deal with genocide or collective war guilt. The Nuremberg tribunal rejected the idea that war crimes can be justified or that soldiers must blindly follow the orders of their leaders when they realize those orders are immoral.

The French Revolution and Napoleonic Era - Sample Multiple-Choice Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following was the basic cause of the French Revolution? 

A. A majority of the French people wanted to replace the monarchy with the republic. 

B. France was a weak country and in economic decline in 1789. 

C. The past abuses of the Old Regime. 

D. The support of nobles for the absolute government of Louis XVI. 

E. The invasion of France by foreign countries.

2. The French bourgeoisie supported the French Revolution mainly because 

A. they believed in the Theory of Divine Right of Kings. 

B. they were not allowed to own property under the Old Regime. 

C. they resented their lack of political power under the Old Regime. 

D. they wanted a democratic form of government. 

E. the government set up a voting system based on universal male suffrage. 

3. The Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen adapted by the National Assembly in the French Revolution was 

A. a declaration of war against Austria and Prussia. 

B. a statement of the main principles of the French Revolution. 

C. a constitution establishing a republican form of government. 

D. a set of laws that confiscated Church property. 

E. an announcement of the French military victory over the enemies of the Revolution.

4. Which of these positions does Mary Wollstonecraft support in her book, A Vindication of the Rights of Woman? 

A. Edmund Burke’s belief that the revolution was creating chaos on the European continent 

B. That women should focus on economic progress over political progress 

C. That the ideas of Olympe de Gouges were too radical 

D. That inherited privileges were important in society 

E. That the ideals of the French Revolution of liberty and equality should be applied equally to men and women 

5. Which social group had the greatest number of victims during the Reign of Terror (1793–1794)? 

A. Bourgeoisie 

B. Clergy 

C. Nobility 

D. Foreigners 

E. Peasants

6. Which was an important result of the Civil Constitution of the Clergy (1790)? 

A. The Pope continued to appoint Church officials. B. The Church was made a department of the French states. 

C. The clergy were given power to open more monasteries and convents. 

D. Church officials received privileged positions in the Estates General. 

E. The Pope was required to pay the salary of the clergy.

7. All of the following are true about the Napoleonic Code EXCEPT that 

A. it provided equal treatment before the law. 

B. it guaranteed religious toleration and trial by jury. 

C. it abolished what remained of serfdom and feudalism. 

D. it is the basis of law in Latin America and is still used in France. 

E. it improved the rights of women. 

8. In Goya’s painting, The Third of May 1808, the painter depicts the shooting of Spanish civilians by 

A. Napoleon’s troops. 

B. those involved in the Decembrist Revolution. 

C. Bismarck’s troops trying to eliminate Austria’s influence over Germany. 

D. Garibaldi’s Red Shirts trying to unify Sicily. 

E. the Estates General.

9. What was a major goal of the Congress of Vienna? 

A. To establish democratic governments in all European nations 

B. To maintain a balance of power in Europe 

C. To preserve the reforms of the French Revolution 

D. To encourage nationalism E. To reestablish the Holy Roman Empire 

10. The most influential figure at the Congress of Vienna was 

A. Talleyrand. 

B. Metternich. 

C. Napoleon Bonaparte. 

D. Nicholas II. 

E. Otto von Bismarck.

Multiple-Choice Questions: Answers and Explanations 

1. C. The Old Regime, which described the political, economic, and social conditions in Europe before 1789, was marked by absolutism in government, inequality among classes, and unequal and burdensome taxation. In 1789, France was divided into Three Estates. The First Estate was made up of the clergy and the Second Estate was composed of the nobles. They made up about 2 percent of the population, but owned about 40 percent of the land and paid no taxes. The Third Estate was made up of the middle class (bourgeoisie), city workers, and the peasants who comprised 98 percent of the population, controlled 60 percent of the land, and paid a variety of different taxes, such as the tithe to the clergy and feudal dues to the nobles. A majority of the French people supported the monarchy until 1791. In 1789, France was one of the wealthiest countries in Europe and not in economic decline. The nobles supported Louis XVI but wanted more influence in the decision-making process. The foreign powers invaded France in 1792, two years after the French Revolution had begun. 

 2. C. The French bourgeoisie supported the French Revolution mainly because they resented their lack of political power under the Old Regime. The bourgeoisie (middle class) included prosperous bankers, merchants, and manufacturers who propped up the French economy. They also included the officials who staffed the royal bureaucracy. The estates system allowed the clergy and the nobles to monopolize all the benefits while the majority received very little. The French bourgeoisie did not support the belief in the Divine Right Theory. They still were loyal to the monarchy but one with less absolute power. They did not support democracy. The middle class owned about 40 percent of the land but had little or no political influence. 

 3. B. The Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was a statement of the main principles of the French Revolution. The declaration guaranteed basic civil rights and that all political sovereignty rested in the hands of the people, not the king. It also proclaimed that all male citizens were equal before the law. Its principles captured the slogan of the French Revolution, “Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity.” The declaration established a constitutional monarchy, not a republican form of government. The Civil Constitution of the clergy led to the confiscation of Church land. The declaration was a statement of political principles and not an announcement of any military victories. 

 4. E. Mary Wollstonecraft was directly influenced by the ideas of Olympe de Gouges. She accepted her belief that women should have the same rights as men. Wollstonecraft also stressed, like de Gouges, that women should be given improved educational opportunities in conjunction with political rights. Her goals were to achieve economic and political freedom and to not sacrifice economic freedom for political gains. As a firm believer in liberty and equality, Wollstonecraft rejected Edmund Burke’s ideas about the fear of freedom and the ideas of privileges based on birth. 5. E. Of the 40,000 who died during the Reign of Terror, about 70 percent were from the peasant class. About 15 percent were bourgeoisie and the remaining 15 percent were clergy and nobility. There were no major executions of foreigners. 

 6. B. The Civil Constitution of the Clergy, which was passed by the National Assembly, denied the power of the pope’s control of the Catholic Church in France. The clergy became salaried officials of the state. The clergy were elected by the people and were independent from the pope. The clergy were denied special privileges and the government dissolved monasteries and convents. 

 7. E. The Napoleonic Code did not improve the rights of women. The Code had several weaknesses in regard to women: Women could not vote; a wife owed obedience to her husband, who had total control over property; and an unmarried woman could not be a legal guardian. The Code recognized civil marriages and divorces; however, it was easier for a man to sue for divorce than a woman. Male heads of households regained complete authority over their wives and children. The Napoleonic Code embodied the Enlightenment principle of equality of all citizens before the law, religious toleration, and trial by jury. The Code also abolished the remnants of serfdom and feudalism. It is still the basis of law in Latin America and France.

8. A. The painting, The Third of May 1808, shows the execution of Spaniards by Napoleon’s troops. In 1808, Napoleon replaced the king of Spain with Napoleon’s brother, Joseph, who introduced liberal reforms that sought to undermine the Spanish Catholic Church. The Spanish remained loyal and conducted a campaign of hit-and-run raids. These attacks kept Napoleon bogged down when troops were needed elsewhere. The painting does not depict events associated with the Decembrist Revolution, Bismarck, programs of Nicholas I, or the Estates General. 

 9. B. A major goal of the Congress of Vienna was to maintain a balance of power in Europe. Following Napoleon’s defeat, diplomats of the victorious nations and France met in Vienna from 1814 until 1815. This was a peace conference to reconstruct war-torn Europe. Although the leaders of the Congress had different objectives, they were determined to turn back the clock of Europe to the time before the French Revolution. They wanted to establish a balance of power, or a distribution of military and economic power, to prevent any one nation from becoming too strong. To ensure this balance of power, Prince Metternich of Austria created the Concert of Europe. The Concert included all the major European states and pledged to maintain the balance of power and to suppress any uprising inspired by the ideas of the French Revolution. The representatives of the Congress of Vienna did not support establishing democratic governments in all European nations. They opposed the French revolutionary ideas of equality and democratic governments. Napoleon brought about the end of the Holy Roman Empire. The leaders of the Congress of Vienna were interested in stopping the spread of democracy and nationalism and not interested in reestablishing the Holy Roman Empire, which Napoleon had destroyed. 

10. B. Prince Metternich of Austria was the most influential figure at the Congress of Vienna. This is because Metternich set a pattern of anti-democratic policies that was followed by most of the rulers of Europe. For 50 years, he was the most influential diplomat in Europe. Talleyrand of France was not the most influential figure at the Congress because he played a secondary role to Metternich. Napoleon Bonaparte was exiled at St. Helena and did not attend the meeting in Vienna. Nicholas II of Russia and Otto von Bismarck of Germany were leaders of their respective countries in the middle of the late nineteenth or early twentieth centuries.

Social Science - Our Country / India - Questions and Answers

Answer these questions:

1. Name the neighbouring countries of India. 

Answer 1 . 

a.India is surrounded by China, Nepal and Bhutan in the north and north east . 

b. Pakistan and Afghanistan in the west

c. Bangladesh and Myanmar in the east. 

d. In the south we have Sri Lanka and across the oceans our neighbour is Maldives.

2. Name the physical and political divisions of India.

Answer 2. India has different physical divisions. They are: India has different physical divisions. They are: 

a. The Northern Mountains 

b. The Northern Plains 

c. The Great Indian Desert 

d. The Southern Plateau 

e. Coastal Plains and Island groups 

POLITICALLY India is divided into 28 states and 8 Union Territories.

3. Which factors bind the Indians? 

Answer 3. India is our motherland. The people of different states live together. They speak different languages and wear different clothes. But all Indians are bound by love for India.

EXTRA QUESTIONS:

Q1.Which water body will you cross to reach Kavaratti ? 

Ans. We will cross Arabian Sea to reach Kavaratti. 

Q2. Why India is divided into states? 

Ans. India is divided into states for easy governance.

Social Science - The Revolt of 1857 - Questions and Answers - Answer the following questions in not more than 100 words.

1. What were the economic causes of the Revolt of 1857? 

Answer 1. (i) Under the new land-revenue settlements, many zamindars lost their lands. (ii) Peasants were made poorer by high rates of taxes and rigid collection. (iii) The British policies ruined Indian handicraft industries and agriculture. (iv) Famines became a regular feature and The Indian rulers who lost their power couldno longer patronise the traditional Indian crafts. (v) Their armies, too, were disbanded. Many artisans and soldiers thus becameunemployed.

2. Discuss why the sepoys were discontended. 

Answer 2.

(i) The rising discontent in the country was reflected in the behaviour of the sepoys. 

(ii) The sepoys were discontended because their salaries and opportunities of promotionwere not equal to those of the British soldiers. 

(iii) Even the special allowance that was given to them when they were sent towar wasdiscontended. 

3. How was the policy of divide and rule implemented in the Indian army after the Revolt of1857?

Answer 3.

(i) The British pursued the policy of divide and rule to prevent the Indians fromuniting. 

(ii) They followed a policy of deliberate discrimination against the Muslimcommunity. 

(iii) To remove all prospects of revolts, the army was reorganised so as to keepit well underBritish control. (iv) The proportion of European soldiers to Indian soldiers was increased. 

(v) Strategic military positions and military equipments were in control of Europeansoldierand officers. 

(vi) They now recruited more soldiers from among the sikhs, Gurkhas, Pathans,jatsetcwhoremained neutral or had helped the British during revolt.

Social Science - The Revolt of 1857 - Questions and Answers -. Answer the following questions in not more than 40 words.

1. What were the political causes of the Revolt of 1857? 

Answer 1.

(I) The British land - revenue policies angered many chiefs and landlords by robbingthemoftheir power and privileges. 

(ii) The British annexed territories on the basis of the subsidiary alliance andtheDoctrineofLapse , and by dis continuing the titles and pensions of rulers. 

(iii) They deposed Nawab Wajid Ali Sha of Awadh on grounds of misgovernment. 

(iv) The descendants of Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II .

2. What was Awadh annexed? Why was this looked upon as an act of betrayal? 

Answer 2. Awadh was annexed by the British on grounds of misgovernment. Wajid Ali Shah, theruler, was deposed and exiled to Calcutta. This was looked upon as an act of betrayal since he had always been loyal to the British and had honoured their terms.

3. Why did the Revolt of 1857 fail? 

Answer 3. The Revolt of 1857 failed because of the following reasons:- 

(I) The British had the support of a strong government in England. 

(ii) Besides, their administrative centres in India were well connected by railways, roadsandtelegraph lines. 

(iii) The British also had able generals and superior military techniques. 

(iv) The Indian military techniques were outdated. 

(v) The rebel leaders lacked experience and coordination, and they failed to consolidatetheirgains.

4. Discuss why the Revolt of 1857 can be called a war of independence. 

Answer 4.

(i) The Revolt begain with the mutiny of the sepoys but was soon transformedintoapopularrevolt when people from different sections of the society spontaneously joinedin. 

(ii) This is evident from the fact that out of the estimated lakhs of people killedintheRevoltand most of them were civilians. 

(iii) The India unite under Bahadur Shah II for a short while to win freedomfromforeignrule.

(iv) This support the argument that the Revolt was indeed a war of independence.

5. What did the British do to win the loyalty of the orthodox Indians after the Revolt of 1857? 

Answer 5. 

(i)The Queen’s Proclamation of 1858 promised noninterference in India’s religiousandsocial customs. 

(ii) This meant that the British would no longer take interest in social and religiousreform.

(iii) They hoped this would win them the loyalty of the orthodox Indians after theRevoltof1857.

RUSSIA | Questions and Answers | US Geography Championships

Sample Qualifying Exams and Answer Keys

1. Which of these rivers of Asiatic Russia does not flow into the Arctic Ocean? 

 A) Ob 

B) Lena 

C) Yenisei 

D) Amur

2. Which Russian city is a terminus of the Trans-Siberian Railroad? 

 A)Kaliningrad 

B) Murmansk 

C) Sochi 

D) Vladivostok

3. A ride on the Trans-Siberian Railroad would pass through which of these cities? 

 A) Kaliningrad 

B) Murmansk 

C) St. Petersburg 

D) Irkutsk

4 . The Sakha Republic is by area the largest subnational governing region in the world, and is located in? 

A) The Russian Far East 

B) Antarctica 

C) Northern Canada 

D) Sub-Saharan Africa 

5. Borscht, Beef Stroganoff, Solyanka, and tea made from a Samovar are elements of the culinary heritage of which country? 

 A) Sweden 

B) Turkey 

C) Russia 

D) Portugal

6. Which is the only country in the world to border both Norway and North Korea? 

 A) Canada 

B) China 

C) Sweden 

D) Russia

 7. The delta of which Russian river lies north of the Arctic Circle? 

 A) Ob 

B) Volga 

C) Don 

D) Amur

8. Which river of Asiatic Russia does not flow into the Arctic Ocean? 

 A) Ob 

B) Yenisei 

C) Amur 

D) Lena

9. Which is currently the largest country on earth by total land area? 

A) China 

B) Russia 

C) USA 

D) Brazil 

10. Which of these countries has a coastline along the Arctic Ocean? 

 A) China 

B) Japan 

C) Russia 

D) Iraq

11. Siberia is found in which of these areas? 

 A) Asiatic Russia 

B) Southern China 

C) North Africa 

D) Middle East

12 . Which of these countries is found in both Europe and Asia? 

A) Germany 

B) Russia 

C) China 

D) Vietnam

13 . Russia maintains an exclave on the Baltic Sea known as the ________ Oblast? 

A) Chukchi 

B) Kamchatka 

C) Chechnya 

D) Kaliningrad

14 . The Yenisseian, Tungusic, and Chukotko-Kamchatkan languages are spoken in which region? 

A) Asiatic Russia 

B) Rub al-Khali 

C) Newfoundland 

D) Florida Keys

15. Which region of Russia is crossed by a namesake railroad that ends in Vladivostok? 

a) Siberia 

b) Chechnya 

c) Tver 

d) Kaliningrad

16. The eastern boundary of European Russia is often considered to be what north-south mountain range?

 a) Urals 

b) Caucasus 

c) Siberian Alps 

d) Novgors

ANSWER KEY 

1 . D

2 . D

3 . D

4 . A

5 . C

6 . D

7. A

8 . C

9. B

10. C

11 . A

12. B

13. D

14 . A

15. A

16 . A

HAWAII | Questions and Answers | US Geography Championships

Sample Qualifying Exams and Answer Keys

1. What US state is home to the only major coffee growing region in the USA? 

 A) Alaska 

B) Minnesota 

C) New Mexico 

D) Hawaii

2. Which is the only US state located south of the Tropic of Cancer? 

 A) Florida 

B) Texas 

C) California 

D) Hawaii 

3. Which US state grows Kona style coffee beans in its rich volcanic soils? 

A)Florida 

B) Hawaii 

C) Texas 

D) Rhode Island

4. Which of these islands contains the majority of the population of the state of Hawaii? 

 A) Maui 

B) Oahu 

C) Kauai 

D) Molokai

5 . Which of these is the largest island by area in the USA? 

 A) Key West 

B) Hawaii (the Big Island) 

C) Maui 

D) Nantucket

6. Which of these islands contains the majority of the population of the state of Hawaii? 

 A) Maui 

B) Oahu 

C) Kauai 

D) Molokai

7. What is the only US state where coffee is grown commercially? 

A) Utah 

B) Iowa 

C) Alabama 

D) Hawaii

8. The islands of Hawaii include which of the following Pacific islands? 

A)Molokai 

B) Saipan 

C) Bora Bora 

D) Yap

9. Which state is the largest in area? 

a. Alaska 

b. Hawai’i 

c. Illinois 

d. Montana

ANSWER KEY 

1 . D

2. D

3. B

4 . B

5. B

6 . B

7. D

8 . A

9. A

NILE RIVER | Questions and Answers | US Geography Championships

Sample Qualifying Exams and Answer Keys

1. The Nile River flows primarily in which direction? 

 A) North to South 

B) South to North 

C) East to West 

D) West to East

2. The Nile Delta can be found in which North African country? 

A) Tunisia 

B) Libya 

C) Algeria 

D) Egypt

3. The Nile River flows north through Egypt before emptying into which sea? 

 A)Black Sea 

B) Sea of Okhotsk 

C) Arabian Sea 

D) Mediterranean Sea

4. Which of these African countries is not part of the Nile River’s watershed? 

A) Egypt 

B) Libya 

C) Sudan 

D) Angola

5. Which of these African rivers flows into the Mediterranean Sea? 

A) Congo 

B) Nile 

C) Niger 

D) Zambezi 

6. Which of these river valleys saw a civilization develop around its delta over 5000 years ago? 

 A) Delaware 

B) Nile 

C) Amazon 

D) Rhine

7. Which animals terrorized the Nile Delta in Ancient Egypt, but are now extinct there? 

A) Camels 

B) Crocodiles 

C) Tigers 

D) Panda bears 

8. Which river in Africa flows predominantly from South to North? 

A) Niger 

B) Congo 

C) Nile 

D) Volta

ANSWER KEY 

1. B

2 . D

3. D

4 . D

5 . B

6 . B

7. B

8 . C

BRAZIL | Questions and Answers | US Geography Championships

Sample Qualifying Exams and Answer Keys

1. In which of these countries is Portuguese the primary spoken language? 

 A) Paraguay 

B) Brazil 

C) Mexico 

D) Belize

2. What largest city by population in the Amazon rainforest, is located near the confluence of the Rio Negro with the upper Amazon River?

A) Manaus 

B) Recife 

C) Florianopolis 

D) Salvador

3. What is the largest country in South American in terms of both land area and population? 

 A) Colombia 

B) Venezuela 

C) Bolivia 

D) Brazil

4. Which largest city by population in Brazil shares its namesake with Minnesota’s capital? 

 A) São Paulo 

B) Recife

C) Florianopolis 

D) Rio de Janeiro

5. Which of these countries has the greatest total area of rain forests in square kilometers? 

 A) Morocco 

B) Brazil 

C) Finland 

D) Uruguay

6. If as an AFS exchange student, you lived with a Portuguese-speaking family in the largest country in South America, then you would be studying where? 

A) Mexico 

B) Brazil 

C) Venezuela 

D) Cuba

7. Toucans, Anacondas, and Piranhas can all be found in the wild in which of these countries? 

 A)Brazil 

B) Kenya 

C) Japan 

D) Canada

8. The destruction of the Amazon rainforest is a major ecological problem in which country? 

A) Brazil 

B) Madagascar 

C) Thailand 

D) Bulgaria

9. Which of these countries ranks in the top 10 in both land area and population? 

A) Brazil 

B) Argentina 

C) Chile 

D) Ecuador

ANSWER KEY 

1 . B

2 . A

3. D

4 . A

5 . B

6. B

7 . B

8. A

9. A

WAEC Geography | Sedimentary Rocks | Questions and Answers

1 . WAEC 2012 - Bedding plane is a characteristic of

A. sedimentary rocks

B. igneous rocks

C. metamorphic rocks

D. volcanic rocks

Answer: 

A. sedimentary rocks

2. WAEC 1994 - Which of the following rock types is coal associated with?

A. Mechanically-formed sedimentary rocks

B. Hard crystalline rocks

C. Organically-formed sedimentary rocks

D. Pultonic igneous rocks

E. Volcanic igneous rocks

Answer: 

C. Organically-formed sedimentary rocks

3. WAEC 1998 - Coal and mineral oil are usually found embedded in

A. crystailline rocks

B. igneous rocks

C. metamorphic rocks

D. sedimentary rocks

Answer: 

D. sedimentary rocks

4. WAEC 2020  - Petroleum is usually found in 

A. resistant rocks 

B. metamorphic rocks 

C. igneous rocks 

D. sedimentary rocks

Answer: 

D. sedimentary rocks

5. WAEC 1995 - Grit is a good example of

A. plutonic igneous rock

B. volcanic igneous rock

C. organically formed sedimentary rock

D. mechanically formed sedimentary rock

E. metarmorphic rock

Answer: 

D. mechanically formed sedimentary rock

6. WAEC 1994  - They are formed in layers and derived from old rocks and the remains of dead organic materials. This description refers to 

A. metamorphic rocks 

B. igneous rocks 

C. intrusive rocks 

D. crystalline rocks 

E. sedimentary rocks

Answer: 

E. sedimentary rocks

7.WAEC 2003 - Which of the following is true of rocks?

A. sedimentary rocks are crystalline

B. igneous rocks are heat formed,fossilized rocks

C. metamorphic rocks are crystalline due to high temperature and pressure

D. sedimentary rocks are non-crystalline and fossilized rocks

Answer: 

D. sedimentary rocks are non-crystalline and fossilized rocks

8. WAEC 2003 - Chalk is a good example of
A. plutonic igneous rock
B. organically formed sedimentary rock
C. mechanically formed sedimentary rock
D. extrusive igneous rock

Answer: 

B. organically formed sedimentary rock